by Kim Riddlebarger @ http://kimriddlebarger.squarespace.com/Adam Olive asks, "The word ‘deceive’ (20:3,10) is used of Satan’s activity during the end-time tribulation (Rev. 12:9; 13:14; 18:23; 19:20). If as is generally thought in the amillennial interpretation the tribulation is the whole church age then how can the deception of the tribulation co-exist concurrently with the non-deception of the nations resulting from Satan’s being bound?"
This is a great question. Actually, it is a variation on the question "if Satan is bound during the millennium, and if the millennium is the present age, how can there still be evil on the earth?" It is argued, therefore, that amillennarians find themselves on the horn of a dilemma when they argue that Satan is supposedly bound, all the while evil continues. In the specific circumstances of of Mr. Olive's question, the dilemma is that Satan is still deceiving while he is bound, and therefore, presumably prevented from deceiving. If true, wouldn't it be better to argue as premillennarians do, that this passage makes more sense if it is describing that period of time after Christ's return, not before (as in both amillennialism and postmillennialism).
There are several important things to consider. First, amillennarians do not believe that the binding of Satan eliminates all Satanic activity during the present age. In fact, the binding of Satan actually explains his great fury against Christ and his people (Revelation 12:10-12). Since the binding of Satan is tied to Christ's victory over death and the grave in his resurrection, despite Satanic opposition to the gospel throughout the entire interadvental age, Satan will not (indeed cannot) prevail (Matthew 16:18-19). He rages, but he cannot win. Satan has been bound by the strong man -- Christ (cf. Matthew 12:24-29), although he still wages war upon the saints because he knows his doom is certain.
Second, John is perfectly clear in Revelation 20:3 (a purpose clause) that when Satan is bound (i.e., cast into the abyss) God's purpose is such that Satan cannot deceive the nations, until [archri] the thousand years are over. As G. K. Beale points out, the specific thing being thwarted is not the act of deception, but the success of that deception "which will result [if not thwarted] in the nations coming together in an attempt to destroy the entire community of faith on earth" (Beale, Revelation, 987). Satan is not prevented from attempting to deceive, he is prevented from being successful in his attempts.
Third, in fact, when Satan is released from the abyss when the thousand years are over, at that point he does succeed in organizing the nations against Christ's church (cf. Revelation 20:7-10), an event which ends in Christ's second advent and Satan's ultimate and final destruction (Revelation 20:10). Paul connects this to the revelation of the Man of Lawlessness and to a great apostasy (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4).
Therefore, answer to this apparent dilemma is found in the fact that Satan's attempted deception in this present age ultimately fails because he is confined to the abyss in order that that he cannot accomplish his ultimate purpose (the deception of the nations). However, at God's appointed time, Satan is released from the abyss (note the parallel to 2 Thessalonians 2:7-12, where the power of God restrains the appearance of the Man of Lawlessness, until the time of final judgment vv. 7-8), and finally accomplishes what he has so far been prevented from doing, organizing the nations (Revelation 20:8, symbolized by Gog and Magog) so as to lead them against the church.
Thanks, Adam, for the great question.
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